a) How would the 90-day notice period work?
The proposed 90-day notice period is a regulatory minimum. AFMs will need to select, and be able to justify, redemption terms that reflect the time required to realise the particular portfolio in an orderly manner, taking account of the fund’s investment objective, policy and strategy and the reasonable expectations of its target investors. The FCA says it would not expect to authorise a fund with a 90-day notice period if it intended to invest substantially in assets that would take longer to sell.
Following receipt and acceptance of a redemption request, the redemption price would be determined at the first valuation point following the end of the notice period. On acceptance, the AFM would also need to confirm the dates on which it expects the request to be effected and the appropriate proceeds paid.
An investor may therefore wait longer than 90 days, depending on the fund’s acceptance arrangements, cut-off and monthly dealing calendar. The investor will remain exposed to changes in the fund’s value during that period and will not know the eventual redemption price when submitting the request.
The draft rules also contain outer regulatory limits: for a NURS operating limited redemption arrangements, the price would have to be determined no later than 182 days, and the proceeds paid no later than 185 days, after receipt and acceptance of the redemption instruction. Those limits do not displace the AFM's obligation to select appropriate redemption and settlement terms for the fund.
b) What does partial alignment with the LTAF framework mean?
FIIAs and LTAFs would share the same minimum redemption terms, but the two regimes would not otherwise merge. An affected fund would remain a NURS, retain the NURS investment and borrowing powers and diversification framework, and would not become a Restricted Mass Market Investment.
The FCA considers that retaining the FIIA structure preserves a more conventional route for retail investment in illiquid assets, such as real estate, with a potentially lower risk profile than an LTAF.
AFMs will therefore need to:
- explain clearly how the products differ in their investment powers, risk profile and intended role in an investor’s portfolio; and
- consider whether each affected fund would remain operationally workable, distributable and commercially sustainable with the prescribed terms. Depending on the fund and its target market, that may support retaining the existing strategy, adopting a hybrid portfolio, restructuring the product or considering whether an LTAF would be more appropriate.
c) Indirect exposure to inherently illiquid assets
The FCA proposes to expand and clarify the types of fund units treated as inherently illiquid assets when determining whether a NURS meets the 50% FIIA threshold. The changes could bring additional fund of funds and feeder structures within the regime, including where the NURS does not invest directly in illiquid assets, ie:
- LTAF units: units in an LTAF would be treated as inherently illiquid irrespective of the composition of the LTAF’s portfolio. The exception is where the LTAF is in the process of winding up or termination.
- QISs and unregulated schemes: units in a qualified investor scheme (QIS) or an open-ended unregulated collective investment scheme would broadly be treated as inherently illiquid where the underlying scheme aims to invest at least 50% of its property in specified inherently illiquid assets. Separate tests would apply to transferable securities held by the underlying scheme. The revised definition would also capture certain QIS and unregulated master-feeder structures.
- Recognised schemes: units in a recognised scheme would be added to the definition where the scheme aims to invest at least 50% of its property in relevant inherently illiquid assets, and is not in the process of winding up or termination.
The FCA also proposes to remove the existing condition that considers whether the underlying scheme’s redemption terms reflect the liquidity of its assets. Its units could therefore count as inherently illiquid regardless of its own redemption arrangements.
The practical consequence is that AFMs should map all NURS holdings in other funds against the revised definition and assess whether those holdings cause the NURS to meet the FIIA threshold. Relatively frequent dealing at the underlying fund level should not be treated as evidence that the exposure is liquid.
d) Three-month buffer
The FCA proposes to retain the existing buffer for funds whose exposure temporarily reaches the 50% threshold. Provided the fund’s published investment objective and policy do not themselves aim to invest at least 50% in inherently illiquid assets, the fund would not become an FIIA on the basis of its holdings unless it remained at or above that threshold for at least three continuous months during the previous 12 months.
This gives hybrid funds time to restore the portfolio to its intended allocation (for example, following substantial redemptions) without moving immediately into the FIIA regime.
The buffer should not be treated as an ongoing means of avoiding the regime. If a fund is likely to exceed the threshold regularly or for substantial periods, the AFM should reconsider whether its investment strategy, structure and redemption policy remain appropriately aligned.
e) Anti-dilution and liquidity management
The proposals also interact with the strengthened liquidity and anti-dilution framework under the FCA's recent PS26/17. The FCA expects anti-dilution tools to reflect the costs of selling a representative, or 'vertical', slice of the portfolio, including the estimated costs attributable to the least liquid assets.
A notice period should make those tools easier to calibrate and reduce reliance on liquidity buffers or what should be the last resort of suspension.
Firms will nevertheless need to consider how the anti-dilution tools available to them would operate where subscription and redemption cycles are not aligned and where incoming subscriptions can be used to offset redemption flows.